Hi Expert:
I got an issue regarding AAR, GVC and the CPLTD
I made the customizing to separate the CPLTD inside a Long Term financial transactions. It run ok but I am facing the following problem:
Valuation Area only one
0001 US GAAP
General Valuation Class
01 Short Term Investments
02 Long Term Investments
03 Short Term Liabilities
04 Long Term Liabilities
21 Long term Invest --> Short Term Inv
34 Long Term Liab --> Short Term Liab
Valuation Class
1 Trading
2 Available for Sale
3 Held to Maturity
4 Liabilities
And in TRGV_VAL_CLS_MAP I have the following entries
| Valuation Area | General Valuation Class | Valuation Class |
| 0001 US GAAP | 01 Short Term Investments | 3 Held to Maturity |
| 0001 US GAAP | 02 Long Term Investments | 3 Held to Maturity |
| 0001 US GAAP | 03 Short Term Liabilities | 4 Liabilities |
| 0001 US GAAP | 04 Long Term Liabilities | 4 Liabilities |
| 0001 US GAAP | 21 Long term Invest --> Short Term Inv | 3 Held to Maturity |
| 0001 US GAAP | 34 Long Term Liab --> Short Term Liab | 4 Liabilities |
So when I have a Loan i.e 55A 200 w/due date in 5 years the GVC "04 Long Term Liabilities" is assigned.
Later when running TPM15M GVC is transfered from 04 to 34 and get 2 positions in the same Financial Transaction,but looking at the table you´ll find that both positions belong to the same valuation class "4 Liabilities"
After that when going to TPM18 to post and even when going to TPM44 (where flows and amounts are ok separated due to positions) the SAME ACCOUNTS are posted --> So to separate the G/L accounts I will need a different Acc *** Reference
But when going to TPM32 to differenciate the AAR taken GVC into account I am only facing Valuation Area and Valuation Class not the GVC.
As you can see the Transaction belongs to the same and unique Valuation Area (0001 US GAAP) and the same Valuation Class (Liabilities) which I think is the correct way regarding it is the same Transaction!!! (shouldn´t matter if it has a Short Term and a Long Term portions, that is what GVC is for)
Till know I have solved it adapting the entries en the table
| Valuation Area | General Valuation Class | Valuation Class |
| 0001 US GAAP | 01 Short Term Investments | 31 Held to Maturity SHORT Term |
| 0001 US GAAP | 02 Long Term Investments | 32 Held to Maturity LONG Term |
| 0001 US GAAP | 03 Short Term Liabilities | 43 Liabilities SHORT Term |
| 0001 US GAAP | 04 Long Term Liabilities | 44 Liabilities LONG Term |
| 0001 US GAAP | 21 Long term Invest --> Short Term Inv | 31 Held to Maturity SHORT Term |
| 0001 US GAAP | 34 Long Term Liab --> Short Term Liab | 43 Liabilities SHORT Term |
This solution had made me create 2 extra Valuation Classes, but it is a resumed situation, that is, I have other valuation classes as Trading, Available for Sale, etc which will make me multiply the entries
As said before, it is not the correct way as rarely (or never) a unique fianancial transaction should belong to 2 or more different Valuation Classes
Do you know how to put the GVC as a source in the AAR determination or any other better way to solve it?
rgds
Claudio